I would like to know if the below information is true or not. I have heard this from one of my friend and she claims that she has got this info from reliable sources like Peace TV, well known and qualified Mufti's etc.

The information is:

Suppose a person has debts and the debt amount has exceeded the minimum Nisab amount. As his net amount was negative, the person did not give Zakaat in Year 1. However, he was able to clear off his debts up to considerate amount in Year 2 and he has savings on which Zakaat becomes obligatory. Hence, he gives Zakaat on the savings in Year 2.

But, according to my friend, this person needs to give the Zakaat from Year 1 as well in Year 2. Since he was not able to give Zakaat in Year 1 due to his debts, he needs to give Year 1's zakaat in Year 2. If he is not in a state to give the whole amount at once, he can distribute the money all over the year and pay off monthly/quarterly/whenever he can. BUT, still it is obligatory to pay off Year 1's Zakaat whether or not you are in debt. Summary is, After you clear off the debts, you need to give the previous year's Zakaats as well.

Hope I am not confusing you with the content.

I would like to know if this information is correct.

1 Answer 1


Rule varies according to detailed information of issue, time and type of property ...

But generally:

The majority of scholars say that debt prevents the necessity of Zakat from inner money (Batinah), Such as cash, gold and silver and trade.

And therefore zakat not obligatory in money that if you have debt take all money or not left a full quorum (Nessap) after pay the debt.

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