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Why Islam contradicts itself with Quran about the authenticity of Bible?

The Qur'an affirms that Allah revealed His word to previous prophets and messengers in the form Torah (Pentateuch), Zabur (Psalms) and Injeel (Gospels) and which was written down in the form of books. The Qur'an testifies to the truth and authenticity of all the previous Scriptures and claims that all these heavenly books are a guidance, blessing and light to all the people of the world. All are to believe in these Scriptures. (Surah 2,91,136,285; 3:3,84; 4:47, 136,163; 5:44-46, 66, 68; 7:145; etc.)

All these heavenly books were in existence when the Qur'an was revealed. Jews and Christians read them, studied them, taught them, and here in above quoted verses from Quran, they were exhorted to hold fast to them (5:66,68).

Thus the Qur'an speaks of these two communities as readers of the Scriptures or "the People of the Scripture" (ahlu'l kitab) (ahlu'l kitab 2:44, 121; 5:43; etc.) not readers of the false Scriptures or "the People of the False Scripture".

The Torah is to judge the Children of Israel. (5:43). The Christians are to judge by the Gospel (5:47).

If Arabs doubt Muhammad's message, they are to appeal to the People of the Scripture. (16:43)

If Muhammad himself is in doubt, he too should ask the readers of the previous Scriptures.

Verse 10:94; so if you are in doubt, [O Muhammad], about that which We have revealed to you, then ask those who have been reading the Scripture before you. The truth has certainly come to you from your Lord, so never be among the doubters.

Verse 6:114: [Say], "Then is it other than Allah I should seek as judge while it is He who has revealed to you the Book explained in detail?" And those to whom We [previously] gave the Scripture know that it is sent down from your Lord in truth, so never be among the doubters.

With all these verses advocating the authenticity of Torah (Tawrat) and the Gospel (Injil), how can Islam say that the bible is changed?

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    how can Islam say that the bible is changed? Because Qur'an says so. E.g Qur'an 2:79, 5:13, 5:15 etc. – servant-of-Wiser Mar 13 '16 at 10:38
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Thank you for your question. Your question actually includes multiple questions. I will try to answer all sequentially, but forgive me if I miss any.

Just so that it is easy for any reader, I will quote parts of your question followed by my answers.

The Qur'an testifies to the truth and authenticity of all the previous Scriptures

...Yes this is TRUE

And claims that all these heavenly books are a guidance, blessing and light
to all the people of the world.

TRUE that the Quran says these books were "guidance, blessing and light"

BUT FALSE that it is for "all the people of the world" or for this day and age. I have not seen any verse that says these.

All are to believe in these Scriptures.

FALSE, we do believe that the Gospel and Torah was revealed from Allah but this does not validate its current day authenticity or require us to believe in its present day content entirely.

They (Jews and Christians) were exhorted to hold fast to them

PARTLY TRUE, as per the verses you quoted (5:66,68) the Jews and Christians were exhorted to hold fast to the Torah, Bible AND THE QURAN. Read entire verses below...

"And if only they upheld [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to them from their Lord,.." (Quran 5:66)

.

Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord." (Quran 5:68)

"The People of the False Scripture".

OUT OF CONTEXT. The Quran does not comment on the authenticity of the scriptures while saying "ahlul-kitaab", this would mean it neither labels the books "true" or "false".

A comparable example in the Quran would be "People of Lut"(pbuh) (54:33), here the Quran does not talk about nature of Lut(pbuh) or the nature of the people of Lut(pbuh). It does not necessarily mean that the people were good or bad neither it means Lut(pbuh) was true or false. It just simply means "People of Lut" (pbuh).

The Torah is to judge the Children of Israel. (5:43).

FALSE. Let’s firstly read the entire verse...

But how is it that they come to you for judgement while they have the Torah, in which is the judgement of Allah? Then they turn away, [even] after that; but those are not [in fact] believers. (Quran 5:43)

This verse actually talks about the Torah being insufficient at the time. It says that the Jews would come to the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) for judgement when they claimed to have the Torah that guides them.

The Christians are to judge by the Gospel (5:47)

FALSE. Let us firstly look at the verse...

"And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein." (Quran 5:47)

In the present day bible, there is actually no way to find out what Allah has revealed in the gospel to Jesus (pbuh). There are actually four narrations of the gospel in use today (namely Mark, Mathew, Luke and John) but not the original gospel. To add to these four narrations are books and letters of Paul which ARE NOT gospels even as per Christians.

This inconsistency of text has given rise to many problems to interpret basic theology. One example of this inconsistency would be, Jesus says "Keep the law", while Paul says "Nail the law to the cross". I call this a "fundamental problem" since this contradiction within the bible itself has closed a lot of good practices of the Torah (like keeping kosher, not making idols etc.) to Christians.

If Arabs doubt Muhammad's message, they are to appeal to 
the People of the Scripture.(16:43)

OUT OF CONTEXT. Let us read the verse...

And We sent not before you except men to whom We revealed [Our message]. So ask the people of the message if you do not know.(Quran 16:43)

This verse tells us that Moses (pbuh), David (pbuh) and Jesus (pbuh) were men. And the Arabs could confirm THIS FACT from Jews and Christians too. It does NOT say anything about "validating" any scripture in its current state.

Muhammad himself is in doubt, he too should ask the readers of 
the previous Scriptures.

Both the verses you quote talks about confirming the coming Muhammad (pbuh) which is mentioned in the Gospel and Torah. Does not mean that that entire Bible or Torah is valid or authentic.

  • "And let the People of the Gospel judge by what Allah has revealed therein." (Quran 5:47)" If the Gospel/Bible is corrupted, how could the people of the Book judge by it? The obvious answer is: It's not been corrupted. – Klutch Aug 21 '14 at 9:03
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    @Klutch, I think you should take into account that there's no way we can empirically know which particular book Quran is referring to when it is talking about "Gospel" or "Torah" when there have been probably an endless non-identical versions of Gospels and Torahs in circulation in that period of history! – infatuated Aug 5 '16 at 11:23

protected by Community Aug 22 '14 at 23:21

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