Since almost all currencies used today are fiat currencies with no real intrinsic value, and since most fiat currency devalue, is it really interest when any money bearing this interest is itself devaluing. We can then see inflation of the costs or real goods in that currency, a kind of devaluation of said fiat currency, as a kind of interest charge?
This can be considered charging interest when you equate present and future values to hard currency (gold, silver). Fiat currency did not exist during our prophet's (pbuh) time. In fact it is a recent invention since the 19th century.
If we go by this premise then can we conclude that fiat currency itself should be considered haram, both to the governments and central banks that issue it, and for the ummah so they minimize the use of it for loans, savings, and investments?