3

In an Islamic country, such as Iran or Saudi Arabia, I presume a woman getting a haircut would be a matter of going to a women-only hairdresser.

If I went to get a haircut in China (where I am now), it might be performed by a man, but even if it wasn't, men would see me without my hair covered. I doubt an average hairdresser would have a private area, and even if they did, they might not allow its usage.

Question: How can a woman get a haircut in a non-Islamic country?

  • I remember that sheikh Kishk used to say that the only think he could appreciate of the lybian dictator al-Kaddafi was the fact that in his country there are no hairdresser (for women), so your assumption might be wrong in this point. You may also find that some Muslim women think it is haram to cut their hair as you might conclude from one question i've answered less than 2 years ago (one of my first answers on ISE). – Medi1Saif Apr 30 '17 at 15:32
1

I don't know how Muslim women had their hair cut (if they did) in our Prophet's time or if there's any hadith about this subject, but I will provide some options that come to my mind for women who don't want to show their hair to men other than their family.

1. Cut it yourself. This has the risk of cutting your skin and you may not achieve the shape that will please you or your husband. Some women do cut their hair themselves.

2. Ask a female relative/friend or a male from your family (someone who is not non-mahram) to cut it for you. This still has the risk of cutting your skin unless the person is skilled with cutting hair.

3. Find a hairdresser shop that is operated by a woman and that serves only women.

4. Find a private hairdresser (who is a woman) to come to your house/place and cut it. This might be more expensive compared to option 3.

  • I was talking about this post islam.stackexchange.com/a/25535/13438 – Medi1Saif May 1 '17 at 9:01
  • "When trying to decide how to do something, please use your own understanding of Quran, hadith and your logic." can be dangerous advice. – Zaid May 6 '17 at 10:58
  • I was referring to the use of one's own logic to interpret Qur'an and Hadeeth. There are people who declare the consumption of alcohol to be permissible based on 4:43, for instance. As for matters which are not clearly mentioned in the Qur'an and Sunnah, the sensible thing to do would be to consult the people of knowledge. – Zaid May 6 '17 at 12:07

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.