In an answer to Does Islam teach subjugation and inequality of women, or is that due to a wrong interpretation of the religion?, user G. Bach writes "the husband can determine where [his wife] lives".
As far as I know, this claim is true, and I'm anticipating having to relocate if I get married (inshallah).
Following the links (here and here) leads to the reference m11.8 of the Shafi'i school's Reliance of the Traveller: "she is obliged to stay in the lodgings her husband arranges for her". This seems to imply the husband is required to "arrange" accommodation for his wife in order to be able to determine where she lives. In other words, if he does not provide her accommodation, he loses the right to determine where she lives.
I'm wondering if this is an accurate interpretation (there may be room for nuance here).
Question: Can a husband determine where his wife lives only if he provides her accommodation?
It seems unsurprising that she is obliged to stay in the accommodation provided specifically for her.