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On recent questions I have heard that it is allowed for a Muslim man to get married to Christian or Jewish women but a book called Taleemul Haq says that Muslims can only get married to other Muslims?

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    I am not sure this is limited to the Hanafi madhab. See verse 5:5
    – Kilise
    Feb 27, 2017 at 20:54
  • Why should any school of jurisprudence make unlawful something Allah has permitted in the Quran? The point is that they might have declared rulings for this to be lawful.
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    Feb 28, 2017 at 6:33

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It's permissible under conditions specified in the Qur'an:

This day [all] good foods have been made lawful, and the food of those who were given the Scripture is lawful for you and your food is lawful for them. And [lawful in marriage are] chaste women from among the believers and chaste women from among those who were given the Scripture before you, when you have given them their due compensation, desiring chastity, not unlawful sexual intercourse or taking [secret] lovers. And whoever denies the faith - his work has become worthless, and he, in the Hereafter, will be among the losers.
Qur'an 5:5

Since it is in the Qur'an (and not abrogated), it is necessarily accepted throughout Islam. Two Hanafi fatawa which confirm this are the following:

The above verse is clear that it is permissible for a Muslim male to marry a female from the Ahl-ul-Kitaab (Jews/Christians).
AskImam

Thus, it would be permissible, in principle, for Muslim men to marry women from the people of the book (ahl al-Kitab) namely Christian and Jewish girls.
daruliftaa.com

Qur'an 2:221 is interpreted (by tafsir and fatawa) as meaning marriages between Muslims and non-Muslims are otherwise forbidden.

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