Until today I thought that one major issue for talaq being valid is that the husband shouldn't have lost his mind or be angry enough to not really be aware of what he is doing, beside other conditions that don't seem to be related to my actual issue ...
While reading this fatwa on islamqa #256423 which says:
If a man divorces his wife during a period of purity in which he has had intercourse with her, this is an innovated divorce (talaaq bid‘i) and is haraam. The Sunnah way of divorce means issuing one divorce (talaaq) during a period of purity in which he has not had intercourse with her, because Allah, may He be exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): ...
I was wondering if i missed something or needed to rectify a former misunderstanding/misinterpretation.
My questions about the fatwa are:
- What does "period of purity" exactly mean in this context?
- And does the fatwa mean that if husband and wife had intercourse for example last week or 2 weeks ago and the wife is not (yet) in her menses and they would have an argument which ends by the husband saying the words of "talaq", the talaq is invalid?
Of course it would be nice to have an answer for the title Question as a kind of overview with quick notes. Views of different sects are welcome!