Question 1: Can we have non-penetrative gay sex, e.g.oral sex?
Question 2: Can we use condom to have anal sex this way there is no risk of disease transmission?
Asking on behalf of a friend
-
1Both questions are irrelevant as Islam condamns homesxuality the sexual acts therefore are haram in any case.– Medi1Saif ♦Jan 7, 2017 at 16:10
Add a comment
|
3 Answers
The answer to both of your questions is - no.
No homosexual acts have ever been permitted in Islam.. whether that is penetrative or non-penetrative. This is just against the Fitrah (natural inclination) and it's wrong. Furthermore, anal sex is forbidden to everyone [including heterosexual married couples].
There is no way to get around it!
Whoever you are asking for, if they are Muslim, tell them to fear Allah (ﷻ) and avoid these evils.
Oral sex: In my answer to Is it halal to have oral sex with the spouse?, I point out how there's a lack of consensus regarding whether oral sex between married opposite-sex partners is permissible. That is, permissibility is questionable even for opposite-sex partners. For same-sex partners, it's forbidden:
Question: ... He received oral sex from men and thinks it does not make him a homosexual because there is no penetration. he is young and not married. He says he is not attracted to men and as long as there no penetration he is not a homosexual. Is he a homosexual or not?
Answer: The person whom you referred to in the question is considered a homosexual, he is disobedient to his Lord and sinful, and he is obliged to repent to Allaah. ... (IslamWeb fatwa)
Anal sex: Anal sex (regardless of gender) is listed as major sin 11 in al-Dhahabi's book Al-Kaba'ir (Major Sins: pdf translation).
Another reference is Al-Islam, which addresses "sodomy or homosexuality", i.e., same-sex sodomy (I asked about the distinction in: Is gay sodomy considered a worse sin than straight sodomy?).
While a condom may prevent the transmission of impurities, the prohibition is not based on impurities.
Do you approach males among the worlds And leave what your Lord has created for you as mates? But you are a people transgressing. -- Qur'an 26:165-166
In the context of a man having sex with his wife during her menses, an IslamWeb fatwa writes:
Intercourse is prohibited during the menstrual period even if one wears a condom. Using the condom has no influence on the initial Islamic rule concerning having sexual intercourse. For example, whoever has sex using it should make the ceremonial purity (Ghusl) even if he does not ejaculate.
Likewise, we can expect the presence of absence of a condom to not change the situation with anal sex.
answered Jan 8, 2017 at 2:58
-
1
-
Thanks; I edited my answer to fix this. (My reading of Major Sins suggests it includes opposite-sex sodomy, since it quotes the hadith "Allah does not look to a man who commits sodomy with a man or a woman", although it's more focused on homosexual sodomy.) Jan 9, 2017 at 2:28
-
-
Your answer is very elaborative, but you could simply tell in the beginning of the answer gay is haram in Islam whether penetrative or non-penetrative and also whether married or not Jan 10, 2017 at 12:07
Anal sex [mentioned as sodomy in the hadith] is haram (forbidden) for all genders in islam, so regardless of condoms, I don't feel as if it would be allowed. HOWEVER, there's ongoing debates on whether homosexuality and being gay is actually haram. From where i see it, oral sex is fine between two men just like it is for a man and a woman in islam as there is no direct evidence of any hadith banning any Muslim from homosexuality, just as long as the people taking part in the oral sex act clean themselves after because it is stated in a hadith that this must be done after oral sex or any sexual act. Hope this helps x
-
-1 Your personal opinion simply does not matter and may mislead others, avoid discussing that which you have no knowledge of.– AboudiFeb 18, 2018 at 15:41