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If a woman can't have children as she had her womb removed or her tubes severed which means that she will not "conceal what Allah has created in their wombs if they believe in Allah and the Last Day. ..." (Qur'an 2:228)

Since the whole aim was to make sure, if there is a child, that there is no confusion as to who's child it is....

So woman have procedures done that ensures that the can never fall pregnant again.... And we have DNA testing...

Why should the woman do iddah?

Men, what is the requirements on them after a talaq and how soon after a talaq are they allowed to remarry?

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  • Read verse 65:4 and my answer about the length of 'iddah. About why an answer needs to be elaborated
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    Jan 4, 2017 at 16:04
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    Who said that the whole aime is to make sure there is a child? 'iddah rule apply to any woman no matter whether she can get pregnant or not as the verse I quoted above shows!
    – Medi1Saif ♦
    Jan 4, 2017 at 18:31

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Did you not see in that ayah, 2:228: "And their husbands have the better right to take them back in that period"? So this gives time for her husband to change his mind and take her back.

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  • Thank you for your response. .. If it is the wife who will not take their husband back or change their mind in this period ... would it make a difference.
    – Rehana
    Jan 4, 2017 at 14:50
  • @Rehana i do not know, but i have seen just nearly a hour ago opinion without proofs that iddah in that case can be 1 month: islamqa.info/en/72930
    – qdinar
    Jan 4, 2017 at 15:44

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