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It was said in the Torah, that one may divorce his wife handing her a letter of Divorce, But what was the practice among the Arabs before and after Prophet Muhammad?

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The only things i could find about pre-islamic talaq is:

That talaq was not limitted so you could speak out talaq as often as you like and could get back your wife as often as you liked. As it seems during the 'Idah. Many spouses used this to hinder the wife to marry somebody else. So they spoke out the words of divorce then right before the end of the waiting periode declared reconciliation before giving divorce again and so on.

Islam made an end to that saying that you may -only- divorce twice with the option of reconciliation (2:229), but if you divorced again this women is free to marry somebody else.

There were also types of talaq which are technically not talaq but a prohibition for the sexual desires and needs of the woman or wife: dhihar الظهار which means declaring the wife as similar as one of his mahrams, so he would never ever touch her again.
Eyla' الإيلاء which means the husband makes an oath to never ever touch his wife again this would mean that the wife would have to wait at least 1 or 2 years until her husband might again share her bed.

Sources al-mawso'a al-Fiqhiya and this site about the situation of women in Jahilya.

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  • The question asked-- only-- the "causes" --that leaded to divorce ones wife especially when they are "abu bakr" and "ibn omr". However, when you donot know the answer, then why do you try to answer? I really do not understand Will you kindly explain?? Your reputation score influence me asking you as I do not answer a question even when I know the answer if only to that / those questions, upto this day, not answered properly, by the scholars. [See, FARUQUEZ] – abu hena mostafa kamal Dec 9 '16 at 11:01
  • @abuhenamostafakamal your question is not clear as it contains too many errors Abdullah ibn Omar was not even married in Jahiliya. And the wife of abu Bakr which he has divorced was named Qutaylah and yes she was divorced in Jahiliyah. But it seems you mean somebody else than Abdullah ibn 'Omar. As long as you haven't cleared that any answer would be based on assumptions. There's no information on the way abu Bakr as divorced his wife, but I guess the way of talaq we know now was known in Jahilya but without limitations as quoted in my answer. – Medi1Saif Dec 11 '16 at 10:34

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