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In islam if two individuals are getting married by choice but live in different countries and are very shy by personality and both decide that they just want to spend time with each other and get more comfortable before such an intimate thing takes place would this mean nikah is void? Also what if both the man and women decide to consumate the marriage months or even a year after the nikah? Would this break the nikah? As both individuals are very shy and are kind of comfortable with each other but hardly speak for each other and so would just want to spend time with each other before anything this intimate happens.

EDIT: I asked two questions not one.

  1. If sex does not happen on the first night, is the nikah void?

  2. If the couple both the man and woman decide to allow it to happen naturally meaning in a couple of months or even a year would this make the nikah valid?

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    Have you ever asked yourself while in quran there's an explicite verse about divorce in case there has not been any consumation of marriage? – Medi1Saif Aug 30 '16 at 17:02
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There is no rule that sexual intercourse should happen in first night. If the woman is having her periods then sexual intercourse should not happen on first night. There can be other reasons which prevent them, so it is up to the couple to decide on this.

In Islam there is nothing that say sexual intercourse between couples should happen at any particular time. But only rules on when not to have sexual intercourse, like during day time of ramadan, during periods etc. So couples can decide any time which is not prohibited times.

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  • I asked two questions – Iram Ahmed Aug 29 '16 at 11:17
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    The answer has an implied meaning to your second question. – Abu Nooh Aug 29 '16 at 11:47
  • So whether they have sexual intercourse or not their marriage isn't void? – Iram Ahmed Sep 11 '17 at 22:50
  • if there is nothing that states it is void, then it isn't void. People marrying in old age may sometimes avoid intercourse, it is their choice. – Abu Ziyad Sep 13 '17 at 11:37

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