In a western country, such as Canada, if someone is forced to sign separation papers with his first wife for the citizenship claim of his second wife (though neither the man nor the first wife want to separate) then, will this documentation be treated as talaq as per shariya?
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There's a shari'a rule saying that forced act are void. But notte that once you accept something by not acting against it even from shari'a PoV you won't find support. On the other hand as a Muslim in a non-Muslim country you should accept the local rules! – Medi1Saif♦ Jun 24 '16 at 6:51
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If he is forced and really cannot fight, it is not considered as valid divorce based on this. – fikr4n Jun 24 '16 at 7:01
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