I know that this kind of question has been asked multiple times on this site and you can probably find them on Google as well, but one thing that is still unclear to me is regarding alcohol that was used as one of the ingredients in any Japanese food (Sushi), Italian food (Lasagna) and any other western food in general.
Now, I've read in some hadith that:
Whatever intoxicates in large quantities, a little of it is haraam.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 1865; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi.
To make it clear for myself and anyone here, the above quote is referring to any drink that will make you drunk in large quantity even for a single drop it will be haram.
But, what if that single drop of the
haram drink was added in any type of food and you consumed that food. Will it make the food that you consumed haram?
I know that the content of the alcohol doesn't evaporate completely and I'm referring it to many sources
A study conducted by the US Department of Agriculture’s Nutrient Data Laboratory in an articles called Alcohol retention in food preparation, by Augustin J, Augustin E, Cutrufelli RL, Hagen SR, Teitzel C., J Am Diet Assoc. 1992 Apr;92(4):486-8, calculated the percentage of alcohol remaining in a dish based on various cooking methods. The results are as follows:
Link to the table of content http://whatscookingamerica.net/Q-A/AlcoholCooking.htm
My real question is:
If drinking wine in large amounts is intoxicating in small amounts, it is haram.
If adding a small amount of wine to lasagne, and eating a large amount of that lasagne is not intoxicating, is lasagne halal?