The Qur'an says it again and again that Allah is the most merciful, and that we must not despair of His mercy, and repent as soon as we realize our mistake.

Then, why does sharia order the killing of an apostate (he might have just reverted, if not killed), or a cruel punishment for zina, riba, homosexuality, or other offences, if Allah Himself is ready to forgive the offender? Moreover the offender might just have repented if given a chance, or a longer life to realize his mistake.

closed as primarily opinion-based by goldPseudo Apr 8 '16 at 4:41

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • This looks like a Truth question rather than anything particularly answerable here. As-written, it is simply going to attract polemic and apologetic, which is not what this site is for (see: meta.islam.stackexchange.com/q/1255/22) – goldPseudo Apr 8 '16 at 4:40
  • @goldPseudo i don't think so..I'm just asking why is sharia so regressive when Allah Himself is so merciful? – Rashid Apr 8 '16 at 4:48
  • What do you mean with shari'a? I mean the same Quran which calls Allah the most merciful is ordering those punishments: legacy.quran.com/5/38, legacy.quran.com/24/2. Please be aware that some of the acts you described are not punished in this live so they are not a matter of shari'a law! – Medi1Saif Aug 8 '16 at 13:34