He/she was junub as he was unsure whether he is impure or pure.

I just want to know what's the Islamic law or the shariah law behind this.

Please give only authentic answers which have evidences and proves from the Qur'an and/or hadith.

Jazak Allah hu khair

  • Did they purposely stay in the state of junub till they died or it was a mere coincidence? Because if it was a coincidence I doubt there will be a punishment! – Aboudi Mar 8 '16 at 19:06
  • @Aboudi what if he/she was not sure about it? – Hammad Nasir Mar 8 '16 at 19:08
  • the reason I asked the question is to provide more details to those who may know the answer, however like I said if the intention is not to remain in a state of impurity then I doubt there will be a punishment! sorry I don't know the answer to this question! – Aboudi Mar 8 '16 at 19:14
  • I could have sworn that the question was about how many ghusul for someone who died in the state of janabah. what has happened? – Atata Mar 8 '16 at 19:19

salam I could only explain shia'view on dead human and his judgment about ablution. there are two poits according to Ayatollah SISTANI'fatwa:

first, it is necessary that we have to wash him or her with three kind of water namely Sedr,kafour and proper water.

second, if some one died while he is junob it is necessary that washed by ablution belonged to dead not other ablutions such as ablution of Hayz or Jinabah.

I reported this fatwa from here

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  • Yeah. it looks to be a right answer, since (at least) washing (ghusl) after his/her dead can be considered as substituing ... (AFAIK) – اللهم صل علی محمد و آل محمد Mar 9 '16 at 9:25
  • Sorry but what exactly is the difference between the janabah (being junub جنب) and Jinabah? To me they are only two different transliterations of the same Arabic word جنابة. – Medi1Saif Mar 10 '16 at 6:31

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