3

The 9th and 12th verses of Baqarah read as follows:

يُخَادِعُونَ اللَّـهَ وَالَّذِينَ آمَنُوا وَمَا يَخْدَعُونَ إِلَّا أَنفُسَهُمْ وَمَا يَشْعُرُونَ

They would trick God and believers, and only themselves they deceive and they do not perceive [this].

أَلَا إِنَّهُمْ هُمُ الْمُفْسِدُونَ وَلَـٰكِن لَّا يَشْعُرُونَ

Truly, they are the workers of corruption, but they do not perceive [this].

From a native Arabian's viewpoint, how these two styles of negation (i.e. ما یشعرون and لا یشعرون) can possibly be different? I know there can be no big semantic difference, yet what about any fine one?

3

This question is really good and should have been asked in the Arabic Section. As i couldn't find something which reveals the secret behind this choice for those both negation in the few tafsir book i consulted i asked the question in there.

And the Answer was really interesting (shortly): in Arabic both ما and لا are used to negate (a verb) so far so good. But the main difference is that while لا is used to express a negation which is valid in all times (past/present/future), ما only expresses a negation of the time of the verb in your example the verb is conjugated in the present.

Here this would mean at anytime Kufar (non-Believers) my not perceive and this "feeling" is for there actual present situation as we consider the Quran to be valid for all time (i hope i could express myself well!).

1
  • Thank you. It makes sense[, and you were immediately understandable!] – Itsme Aug 11 '15 at 10:26

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.