Last night I had a fight in my family. When I was in bed, I was thinking of the situation. Absentmindedly I said talaq 2 times in mind, but I didn't pronounced the words. My tongue didn't move. No word came out of my mouth. Please advise me.

  • Incase this happens to you again in something else, thoughts do not count in Islam if you don't act on them.
    – user12537
    Jul 27, 2015 at 4:08

2 Answers 2


Talaq does not take place unless you say it or write it down. More details for this in this fatwa.

In Alzahiriyyah madhhab, Ibn Hazm says even writing talaq does not count, and you have to say it orally.

  • Interesting Answer i'm quite sure that i read a fatwa on the same page where an the scholar said that talaq was intended and therefor counts!
    – Medi1Saif
    Dec 8, 2015 at 11:26
  • I gave the bottom line and referred to the page for further reading. the part you mention "is very unlikely to be correct".
    – user13592
    Dec 9, 2015 at 13:46
  • Apparently they take it literal.. i found the fatwa... it was about somebody who wrote it in his mobile but deleted it before sending, good to know
    – Medi1Saif
    Dec 9, 2015 at 13:53
  • The intention bit is when a person uses ambiguous language that could mean Talaq or something else. For example if the husband says, I am not gonna touch you. This could mean that he doesn't want to touch her forever and divorce her or it could mean something casual where the woman is either sick or something. If it's the first case, Talaq has taken place. If it's the second, it has not.
    – Noah
    Jun 20, 2016 at 8:55

This is not a complete steps of divorce that you say Saying talaq 2 times in mind. I pointed it out, because there are some special items or conditions concerning talaq that you or other persons who intend to divorce, should do them. E.g. look at the following condition as a condition of talaq

The Divorce contract must be recited with the correct Arabic words in a way such that two just men listen to it. If the man wants to recite it by himself and his wife's name is Fatimah, he should say "

Accordingly, as you read the condition above, reciting the correct Arabic words in a condition of that. That at least you have not done it (although you have not done other conditions too). Then don't get confused, because that is not a correct talaq.

The sources:

www.islamquest.net and this

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