What are Satanic verses?

I have heard about them and about the book by Salman Rushdie. Were there really some verses which were removed from Quran, which were termed as satanic?

If it is so, then it is possible that all those points on which Quran contradicts Bible, like Divinity of Jesus, Death & Resurrection of Jesus or sacrifice of Abrahams son Isaac could be verses from same source.

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    Welcome to Islam.SE site. This site works better with only one question in a post. You first asked, whether some verses were removed from Quran? then, how one is sure there is no more such verses, implying you believe, some verses were removed. So, why is the asking about removing. if you don't know, why is the advanced question without the answer of the first "were here really some verses which were removed..." question. I suggest you to edit the question and also reading the faq may help. thanks.
    – Anwar
    Commented Sep 4, 2012 at 8:45
  • As remarked by ashes999, Wiki link provided by Marc cannot be in comments but in an answer.
    – user426
    Commented Sep 5, 2012 at 4:13
  • The actual incident is actually quite over-hyped by modern critics of Islam. No verses were ever removed from the Quran. Wonderful lengthy explanation on the satanic verses
    – Truth
    Commented Dec 2, 2012 at 3:00
  • I think the satanic verses are well covered in Wikipedia en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Satanic_Verses (and the novel of Salman Rushdie en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Satanic_Verses).
    – Medi1Saif
    Commented May 9, 2016 at 9:27

4 Answers 4


By definition a Satanic verse is a verse induced to mind of prophet by Satan that prophet think this is a revealed verse from God. But in real life of prophet such think did not happened because God protected his mind from induces of Satan. Explained here

According to all Muslims no verse was removed from Quran.

Who claims such verse existed should show evidence for this claim.

Also there is a completely different concept called Naskh that means changing a past rule by a new rule. Such verses exist in Quran but both verses for before and after Naskh exist in Quran and the past verse was not removed from Quran.

For example sahaba came to home of prophet and sit there and did not leave there. Prophet did not said them leave my home if you have no question or work with me for being polite. Then a verse was revealed to people that:

O you who have believed, do not enter the houses of the Prophet except when you are permitted for a meal, without awaiting its readiness. But when you are invited, then enter; and when you have eaten, disperse without seeking to remain for conversation. Indeed, that [behavior] was troubling the Prophet, and he is shy of [dismissing] you. But Allah is not shy of the truth. And when you ask [his wives] for something, ask them from behind a partition. That is purer for your hearts and their hearts. And it is not [conceivable or lawful] for you to harm the Messenger of Allah or to marry his wives after him, ever. Indeed, that would be in the sight of Allah an enormity. http://tanzil.net/#33:53

And also this verse came saying who wants to talk prophet first should pay money for charity:

O you who have believed, when you [wish to] privately consult the Messenger, present before your consultation a charity. That is better for you and purer. But if you find not [the means] - then indeed, Allah is Forgiving and Merciful. http://tanzil.net/#58:12

After reveal of this verse none of sahaba came to home of prophet unless Imam Ali a.s. who paid money for charity each time wanted to meet prophet and asked him different questions.

Then this verse revealed:

Have you feared to present before your consultation charities? Then when you do not and Allah has forgiven you, then [at least] establish prayer and give zakah and obey Allah and His Messenger. And Allah is Acquainted with what you do. http://tanzil.net/#58:13

This verse was Naskh for past verse. But as you see past verse still exist in Quran.

The book you mentioned is contains propaganda against Islam and insult to prophet and his wives.


  • 1
    But history speaks otherwise as also an often quoted source for an unbiased info and as reputed site as wiki has a different view. See link en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Satanic_verses#Tabar.C4.AB.27s_account. Specially the complete text of Tabarī's account. Keeping aside the views Modern Muslim scholars' which is natural, all other non Islamic scholars seems to have not disputed this.
    – user426
    Commented Sep 5, 2012 at 14:13
  • 1
    this story mentioned in Tabari book is proved to be only a myth. historians know Tabari book contains many false information. Tabari himself has said (can be seen in your link also) that his book is "solely upon what has been transmitted to me" there are some people described in this book that basically did not exist in history like Ibn Saba. however this article talks about this myth by detail and more proof and evidences: al-islam.org/180_questions_vol2/47.htm if you have any evidence known to be authentic and valid please provide.there are many fake hadith and myth mixed in books Commented Sep 5, 2012 at 14:34
  • -1. Your answer can be used in some capacity but it does not really answer the question? What are satanic verses? Can I assume the first of the two verses that asked for charity was satanic?
    – muslim1
    Commented Sep 5, 2012 at 16:36
  • 1
    @Thecrocodilehunter the question assumes "Satanic verses" exist. but truth is such verses does not exist at all. so the answer you want does not exist at all. this is why my answer seem to not answer the question. this is only an invalid accusation. it is like I ask you: why you killed my brother? and you reply: I did not killed him. then I tell: your answer does not really answer my question. the problem is this question is not a real question because does not have any valid evidence for its assumed accusation. Commented Sep 6, 2012 at 2:03
  • 1
    @Thecrocodilehunter I disagree this claim. there are lots of history books about Islam from muslims and non muslims from different countries and different sects. many of them not translated to English. if you seek enough what really existed can be found in history. I do not think anything more than what really happened at Ghadir Khumm at end of life of prophet is controversial in Islam but look in how many sunni books only it is recorded: al-islam.org/ghadir Commented Sep 7, 2012 at 12:17

There are two separate issues that you have asked about.

Satanic Verses is a book written by Salman Rushdie. I have never read it, but have heard it described as pornographic in nature. This has nothing to do with the fact that some verses were abrogated from the Quran.

Some verses have indeed been abrogated in the Quran. This fact is well-known and well-documented. There are 3 modes of abrogation. These modes are:

  1. Both the recitation, i.e., the text of the verse, as well as the command contained in it were abrogated.
  2. The recitation, i.e., the text of the verse was abrogated, but the command contained in it was not abrogated.
  3. The recitation, i.e., the text of the verse was not abrogated, but the command contained in it was abrogated.

When a verse was abrogated in text, it is no longer recited while reciting Quran.

When a verse was abrogated in command, it is no longer acted upon while living as a Muslim.

Both aspects of abrogation (text and command) are matters recorded by the Sunnat of the prophet.

Some might wonder what was the logic in abrogation. If the Muslim contention is that God is perfect, then what was the purpose behind abrogation of verses.

What I've understood is that firstly Muslims believe in Allah, not only in His existence, but also in His status as the primary authority to be able to define what is right and what is wrong.

The Islamic view regarding the purpose of creation of human beings was to test which of us would be obedient and which of us won't be.

The ideal Muslim "listens and obeys" Allah's commands.

Abrogation presented a test of faith for the people present at the time when the verses were being revealed.

Another purpose of abrogation was as a reminder of Allah's Mercy, where the text of a verse was left in, but was no longer acted upon, so that people may remember that initially, they had to do something, which they no longer needed to, after Allah was Merciful to them and lifted a burden.

There is a very well-written article on this matter, which I have essentially summarized above. I urge you to read it to gain better understanding.


  • You have a very strange definition of "pornographic" Commented May 18, 2017 at 18:14

Quran is a Holy Scripture of ALLAH send to His people through Prophet Mohammad (pbuh), so their is no satanic verses in Quran to be removed in the first place.

Satanic Verses is a fictional book written by Indian-British author Salman Rushdie in which he referred to the eponymous Satanic Verses. The Devil was supposed to have deceived Prophet Mohammad (pbuh) into thinking that those verses were uttered by Allah. This obviously is a sensitive issue bound to cause ridicule about the authenticity of the entire Quran. It created a world that although fictional closely paralleled the life of Prophet Mohammad (pbuh) during the time he was receiving teachings from Allah. Rushdie depicted the initial doubts in Prophet Mohammad's (pbuh) mind about the true path. So there were no real satanic verses in the holy Quran. Furthermore if you are over sensitive about Islam, then don't read "satanic verses", you will get furious.

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    – Medi1Saif
    Commented May 9, 2016 at 5:47

To suggest that the Qur'an has satanic verses are contradicting to the verses:

34:49:5, 3:60:1, 2:176:6, 2:213:13, 18:27:3.

حق (Haq) would mean truth, and truth is devoid of باطل (baaTil) or falsehood (34:49). The وحي (waHy) or revelation of الكتاب (alkitaab) or the book by a نبي (nabee) or prophet as per 2:213 is inspired by الله (Allah) SWT (18:27) and thus the book cannot contain falsehood.

I'd assume that when Allah SWT mentions about نسخ الايات (nasK alayaat) or the abrogation of verses as per 2:106, that He is talking about it in the context of two different eras/times and places as in the verses pertaining شرعة (shirAh) or fundamental laws (morals of conducts/the ways/streams of things/motivation behind the SOP) and منهاج (minhaaj) or methods/rites (standards of procedures/SOP) as per 5:48, as time/era changes the challenges change, the subtleties and precision of understanding of realities increases/decreases etc.

  • 1
    -1: This is a rather difficult read; try as I might, I still can't make much sense of the last paragraph, much less how it relates to the actual question asked. This post needs some significant rework for clarity.
    – goldPseudo
    Commented Dec 12, 2012 at 22:34
  • The relation between the last paragraph and the question is in the issue of verse ammendmants that caused some people to attribute it to the Quran and hence the term satanic verses. The quran was never ammended by verses in the quran itself (contrary to the common understanding of naskh and mansookh), rather it ammends the previous scriptures. As in the changes of the Qibla, etc. Commented Dec 15, 2012 at 20:36
  • This is not correct. Please see the link in my answer. Commented Jan 1, 2016 at 22:32

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