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If the marriage has not been consummated and the Shia husband gets divorce papers prepared for his Shia wife through a lawyer with signatures of three witnesses and himself, has divorce taken place or does it require signatures of the boy's wali i.e. his father?

The papers are in the custody of the boy's father.

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                                 بسم الله الرحمن الرحیم

First of all I should mention that the boy’s wali (his father) doesn’t seem to be related to that matter as Mrs. Bleeding Fingers said. (as you inquired):

Has divorce taken place or does it require signatures of the boy's wali i.e. his father?

Meanwhile, you’d better pay attention to some related terms of divorce or Talaq briefly as well (as some of Talaq terms):

  • In Talaq or divorce, its terms ought to be done entirely, not some parts of that.
  • The Siqag of Talaq ought to be read (as a significant terms of Talaq)
  • The Siqah of Talaq ought to be recite (by the tongue), hence it won’t be valid to write on the paper

Otherwise, (I presume) the divorce apparently won’t be correct.

References:

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No, the divorce hasn't taken place, and getting boy's wali's signature wouldn't help either.

In the Shiite school to get a divorce (this might not be really accurate but enough to prove that the said two have not been divorced) there is this specific text that needs to be read. It requires the witness of three adil/[somebody could place an accurate English translation of it here] witnesses. And the woman should not be menstruating at the time.

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