2

If marriage dates are fixed in advance (e.g. 2 or 3 months ago) and the bride is in her menses on the day of nikah, does it invalidate the nikah?

In short, can nikah be performed when the bride is having her mensus?

I am interested in a summary of opinions on this topic, across Shi'ite and Sunni jurisprudence.

2

AS @Ahmad said the marriage contract is valid if the bride was in mensus as far as any other shari'a rules about marriage (wali, witnesses, agreement, mahr etc.) were fulfilled. But the consummation of nikah (by intercourse) is only permissible when the menstruation ended and the bride/wife did the ghusl!
Nevertheless Some scholars consider it makrooh for a bride in her menses to attend the "marriage party".

There we have a consensus between shi'a and sunni scholars.

Menstruation only play a role in divorce and heritage matters, as it could be that the women was pregnant (therefore they must wait for the mensus to come) etc. ...

a) shi'a point of view see Q6) here

b) sunni point of view see this fatwa

| improve this answer | |
  • Although your response looks in short, but I assume it is convey the right purpose, especially by mentioning 2 points of view from Sunni and Shia. Indeed it can be deserved for upvote. God Bless You. – اللهم صل علی محمد و آل محمد Oct 12 '15 at 19:50
0

No. The marriage contract has nothing to do with that.

Nikah (marriage contract) can be performed weather or not the bride is having her PMS.

Only sexual conduct is not allowed while PMS is active.

| improve this answer | |
  • thanks for the answer. please mention it is a shia/sunni view or it is applicable to both – Zia Feb 17 '15 at 10:00
  • 1
    PMS and Menstruation are 2 different things.he asked about mestruation. not PMS – user12159 Apr 18 '15 at 17:10

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.