If marriage dates are fixed in advance (e.g. 2 or 3 months ago) and the bride is in her menses on the day of nikah, does it invalidate the nikah?

In short, can nikah be performed when the bride is having her menses?

I am interested in a summary of opinions on this topic, across Shi'ite and Sunni jurisprudence.

2 Answers 2


AS @Ahmad said the marriage contract is valid if the bride was in mensus as far as any other shari'a rules about marriage (wali, witnesses, agreement, mahr etc.) were fulfilled. But the consummation of nikah (by intercourse) is only permissible when the menstruation ended and the bride/wife did the ghusl!
Nevertheless Some scholars consider it makrooh for a bride in her menses to attend the "marriage party".

There we have a consensus between shi'a and sunni scholars.

Menstruation only play a role in divorce and heritage matters, as it could be that the women was pregnant (therefore they must wait for the mensus to come) etc. ...

a) shi'a point of view see Q6) here

b) sunni point of view see this fatwa

  • Although your response looks in short, but I assume it is convey the right purpose, especially by mentioning 2 points of view from Sunni and Shia. Indeed it can be deserved for upvote. God Bless You. Oct 12, 2015 at 19:50

No. The marriage contract has nothing to do with that.

Nikah (marriage contract) can be performed weather or not the bride is having her PMS.

Only sexual conduct is not allowed while PMS is active.

  • thanks for the answer. please mention it is a shia/sunni view or it is applicable to both
    – Zia
    Feb 17, 2015 at 10:00
  • 1
    PMS and Menstruation are 2 different things.he asked about mestruation. not PMS
    – user12159
    Apr 18, 2015 at 17:10

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