Is Zina only used for illicit relations between a man and a woman or is it also used to refer to sexual relations between two men?
Homosexuality is an invention of the 19th century. Before the 19th century people had words for specific sexual acts, but did not have words for forms of so-called sexual orientation. The Arabic word lūṭī لوطي refers to the city of Lot (Sodom in the Bible); for the practice of the people of Sodom Arabic uses the derived noun liwāṭ لواط , which is the exact equivalent of the English “sodomy”. liwāṭ, as defined by Islamic law, is a specific sexual act: anal intercourse between men. It does not designate a “sexual orientation” and it thus wrong to translate it as “homosexuality”. For the latter modern Arabic has coined the word mithliyya مثلية “sameness”.
The term Prophet Loot used was Fahisha:
وَلُوطًا إِذْ قَالَ لِقَوْمِهِ أَتَأْتُونَ الْفَاحِشَةَ مَا سَبَقَكُم بِهَا مِنْ أَحَدٍ مِّنَ الْعَالَمِينَ
And Lot when he said to his people, "Do you commit such immorality [faahishat] as no one has preceded you with from among the worlds? Surah al-Araf 7:80
It matters on what context you use the term. If it's used generally, then includes all perverted acts and zina falls under it.
But if you mention zina and fahisha separately, it applies to other acts that aren't actual sex.
According to my researches, Zina is related to the relation between a man and a women, not two men. On the other hand, I ought to mention that the relation between two men is related to homosexuality.
In regard to Zina, it is likewise better name four kinds of Zina briefly:
Zina with Maharem
Zina to the Onf
But as I read the four kinds of Zina, I solely see that those four kinds of Zina are related to the relation between man and woman (but in different position..) not the relation between two men. So the relation between two men is called Lavaat (لواط), not Zina.