3

If I am a non-believer or apostate from Islam, I suppose this sura applies to me:

2-7: Allah has set a seal upon their hearts and upon their hearing, and over their vision is a veil. And for them is a great punishment.

If Allah (and not myself) is the one, according to this sura, responsible for my lack of belief, by sealing my emotion and senses necessary for believing (heart, hearing, and vision), why is it me who will be punished for it? If God is omnipotent, why am I responsible for his interference into my disposition towards believing? If he is omnipotent, there should be nothing in my power to be done about it.

  • plz read this dicussion , and hope it helps.Thing that i'm sure about is that Allah is Just and Wise. islam.com/questions/7060/… – may saghira Oct 20 '14 at 14:12
  • similar question: islam.stackexchange.com/questions/36793/… – qdinar Feb 25 '17 at 7:25
  • see also sura 32: 13. And if we had willed, We could have given every soul its guidance, but the word from Me will come into effect [that] "I will surely fill Hell with jinn and people all together. 14. So taste [punishment] because you forgot the meeting of this, your Day; indeed, We have [accordingly] forgotten you. And taste the punishment of eternity for what you used to do." – qdinar Feb 25 '17 at 7:51
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According to your logic and understanding of this ayat nobody can accept Islam but it is fairly untrue.

In fact Allah is the Most Merciful and He gives you one chance after another so if you are ignoring them your heart become more and more harsh. After some time it may be sealed. But is this unfair? I don't think so.

  • this is not an answer – amphibient Nov 13 '14 at 2:38
  • For sure for every answer you can say that this is not an answer. Similarly I can say that your question is not a question. Just read Quran with open mind. If you are not understanding some verses read tafsir. – Jihad Nov 13 '14 at 4:51
  • i do not see that he says anything that leads to "nobody can accept Islam ". – qdinar Feb 25 '17 at 7:36
0

It seems to me you misunderstood the meaning of that verse. The Qurʾān maintains that God ﷻ has made the truth clear from falsehood, and now man has the choice to accept either of them:

By the Soul, and the proportion and order given to it; And its enlightenment as to its wrong and its right;- Truly he succeeds that purifies it, And he fails that corrupts it! (91:7-10)

Say, "The truth is from your Lord": Let him who will believe, and let him who will, reject (it) ... (18:29)

It becomes then clear that the verse in question (2:7) can't be taken in that sense. Furthermore, in a Prophetic commentary of that verse it is mentioned:

ثم قال ابن جرير : فأخبر رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم أن الذنوب إذا تتابعت على القلوب أغلقتها ، وإذا أغلقتها أتاها حينئذ الختم من قبل الله تعالى [...] فذلك هو الختم والطبع الذي ذكر في قوله تعالى

(ختم الله على قلوبهم وعلى سمعهم)

Then ʾIbn Ġarīr said : The Prophet of God (Peace Be Upon Him) informed that if the evil deeds
were in succession [that is, when they become too many] upon the hearts they seal them, and if they seal them only then the seal from God ﷻ comes to them. [...] And that is the seal stated in: “God has set a seal on their hearts and on their hearing ...”

Tafsīr ʾIbn Kaṯīr -- (2:7).

I hope this answers your question.

  • it really doesn't, i am even more lost and confused. maybe because i am primarily guided by logic and reason – amphibient May 27 '15 at 1:23
  • @amphibient Or perhaps - in a more realistic perspective - because you aren't guided by them. To claim that God ﷻ sealed your senses and was therefore the only one responsible for your disbelief is equivalent to stating that you don't have free will, which I refuted by mentioning (91:7-10) and (18:29). I also stated by mentioning the Prophetic commentary of (2:7) that your senses were sealed if and only if you made extremely many sins, which wouldn't violate the first premise. – Hakim May 27 '15 at 17:53

protected by Community Oct 18 '14 at 0:45

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