I have heard that it is not permissible to use an office phone to talk with one's relatives when the boss does not allow it for personal matters, since it is not a personal device.

(Note: I inquire this question as an item which could be related to any person...)

My question is: Is this haram or makruh?

  • 1
    I don't see what the point of this question is (whether it is asked from any view), it should be as simple as asking your official/boss, but under assumption that any scholar would take their time and answer such a question in regards to it's permissibility, which scenario is this question asking in? I mean are you asking if it is permissible after you have asked your boss? or are you asking if it is permissible if you have not asked your boss? Note: just because it is an office phone, does not necessarily mean your are not allowed to use it for personal items.
    – مجاهد
    Oct 14, 2014 at 14:31
  • unless otherwise specified.
    – مجاهد
    Oct 14, 2014 at 14:32
  • @Mujahidمجاهد,alright, I will make it more specific. it was a suitable point which you mentioned. Oct 14, 2014 at 15:31
  • Of course, as far as I know, there is a general law that mentions it is not permissible for the clerks to use the phone of offices as their personal jobs. So it was my meaning ..., anyhow how, perhaps I'd better to make it more specific as you mentioned. Well done buddy. Oct 14, 2014 at 15:47
  • Try to keep your question titles short precise and crisp to attract quality answers and so that they become easily searchable and ask general doubts not exact situation also try adding the tag practical Islam. Mar 18, 2015 at 15:05

1 Answer 1


It is important to understand that most law systems (including Islamic Law) target universal principles and not the modes and means. For example, murdering an innocent person is a crime in itself and is not dependent upon whether the killer used a sword or a gun. If we take your example, then gun was not there in Prophet (SAW)'s era; does this allow people to kill others with guns?

So given that you understand the point, using someone else expense to fulfill some of your needs without his/her consent is unlawful in the first place. If you haven't taken permission from your office management about personal use of the phone, then you are directly increasing office's expenditure (which someone will be paying, right?) through your personal use without their consent.

If you have already done that, you should bring this into the knowledge of office management. They'll probably not mind it. If they do, you should offer them compensation (deduction from your salary or something else) by inspecting past phone bills.

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