From my understanding, the Quran was an oral tradition (for a generation or so) and then it was finally written down. Now obviously, while Arabic has been standardized, the various dialects of Arabic may differ on pronunciation. Is there a stringency for vocalization when reading from the Quran in a public setting (possibly as an obligation under Sharia law) or is the Quran more important as a printed text?
For example, pretend that one Islamic community in India will read from the Quran in Arabic (again, possibly to fulfill some religious obligation). However, they do not differentiate between an 3ayin and alif (the 3ayin becomes silent, like the alif). Are there legal consequences for this?