My husband is a Muslim and was married for 10 years with no children birthed in the relationship. In 2005, my husband gave his wife's family a letter of divorcement. However marital relations evidently continued after this, producing 2 children in 2007 and 2009.

Was my husband actually divorced in this case, or can his first wife continue to expect marital relations because their actions reconciled the marriage?

Please respond with Qur'an verses please.

1 Answer 1


This comment is only about a man divorcing his wife and taking her back. In Surah al-Baqarah 2:229, Allah said,

The divorce is twice, after that, either you keep [her] on acceptable manner or release [her] with kindness...

A man can divorce his wife twice, with the third being final one.

In Surah al-Baqarah 2:228:

And divorced women shall wait for three menstrual periods (quru), and it is not lawful for them to conceal what Allah has created in their wombs, if they believe in Allah and the Last Day. And their husbands have the better right to take them back in that period, if they wish for reconciliation...

If a husband divorces his wife once, and she has not completed her 3 menstrual periods, he can take her back. If he divorces her the second time, and she has not completed her 3 menstrual periods, he can still take her back. But the third divorce is the final and cannot take her back.

From this understanding about divorce, you should be able to conclude what happened inshaAllah.

  • 2
    I think there is great potential for confusion by your use of the word "divorce." The way it is commonly understood in English, a "divorce" is one act and it is final. It might be more instructive to say that there are three talaqs in Islam, and the third one is equivalent to a divorce in the conventional sense.
    – Ansari
    Apr 12, 2014 at 3:19

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .