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A non-Muslim friend recently invited me out for lunch a few days back. Naturally, since he had invited me, he picked up the tab at the restaurant.

Now I am worried about a few things.

This friend has a halal business through which he makes most of his money. However, other than this, he and some of his staff also do consultancy for Tarot and "past-life" regression and so on and so forth, which is essentially haram. So he has earnings from two sources, one halal and the other haram.

I was wondering if I did the right thing by accepting his invitation for lunch. And if it was wrong, how do I compensate for this sin of eating food purchased with haram money, if at all the money was haram? Is it ok if I give away a similar amount in charity?

A point to note is that a few years back a friend (who is very particular in Islamic matters like halal, haram, etc.) had told me that if a person has earnings from both halal and haram sources and he invites you out, then insha Allah, Allah will consider the money spent as from his halal sources only. I was wondering how correct this is.

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  • Yup I have the same issue here. But too bad there are no good answer here yet.
    – Gujarat Santana
    Mar 4, 2017 at 9:57
  • What is the case if Muslim friend does so? It is very common nowadays.
    – T M
    Jun 15, 2017 at 16:32

1 Answer 1

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The issues are separate. If someone earns money in the haraam way, the sin is on the way it was earned. Buying anything with that haraam money doesn't make the item haraam also.

So, buying food with haraam money doesn't make the food haraam. You're allowed to eat it. It's just that the barakah is taken away from the money, but not how you spend it.

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    -1. Your comment reflects a personal opinion that has no standing. Check out this hadith: Narrated Abu Mas'ud: "The Prophet (SAWS) prohibited taking the price of a dog, the earnings of a soothsayer and the money earned by prostitution." sunnah.com/bukhari/68/91
    – Najeeb
    Mar 30, 2014 at 13:02
  • That's not a hadith of the Prophet, it's a saying of ibn Masud. A Hadith would be QUOTING the words of Rasolullah, to which this doesn't. Second, what i said doesn't contradict what you posted. Third, why ask a question if you already have a presumption?
    – Sayyid
    Mar 30, 2014 at 21:47
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    No offence, brother. However the quote above explicitly states that "Rasoolullah (SAWS) prohibited...," so it is a hadith for all practical purposes, or at least has a status of a marfoo hadith since a Companion is quoted. True, it doesn't contradict what I have posted, yet it doesn't answer my question and goes directly against the above-quoted hadith, since essentially it means that even food that is halal per se is haram for consumption if purchased with wrongly acquired money. Thirdly, my question is very specific if you read it: how to compensate for this, and the last paragraph:
    – Najeeb
    Mar 31, 2014 at 1:54
  • "... if a person has earnings from both halal and haram sources and he invites you out, then insha Allah, Allah will consider the money spent as from his halal sources only."
    – Najeeb
    Mar 31, 2014 at 1:55
  • Read the Arabic. It doesn't say "Rasoolullah prohibited" The word "Prohibited" is added into the English translation and it's not in the Arabic. So this is NOT a hadith of the Prophet. It's a saying of ibn Masud and he was wrong. Income earned from haraam is haraam, but the food is halal. That's from Quran.
    – Sayyid
    Mar 31, 2014 at 20:28

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