If a person divorces his wife without presence of anyone else it is valid?

in other words

Is a divorce (Talaq) valid without any witness?

  • Downvoting - this is a pure fiqhi question that is better sourced from authentic fiqh websites. I don't see the question adding general knowledge value. – Ansari Jun 20 '12 at 16:39

Not it is not valid as Quran says:

فَإِذَا بَلَغْنَ أَجَلَهُنَّ فَأَمْسِكُوهُنَّ بِمَعْرُوفٍ أَوْ فَارِقُوهُنَّ بِمَعْرُوفٍ وَأَشْهِدُوا ذَوَيْ عَدْلٍ مِّنكُمْ وَأَقِيمُوا الشَّهَادَةَ لِلَّهِ ۚ ذَٰلِكُمْ يُوعَظُ بِهِ مَن كَانَ يُؤْمِنُ بِاللَّهِ وَالْيَوْمِ الْآخِرِ ۚ وَمَن يَتَّقِ اللَّهَ يَجْعَل لَّهُ مَخْرَجًا (طلاق/2)

Then, when they have reached their term, retain them honourably, or part from them honourably. And call in to witness two men of equity from among yourselves; and perform the witnessing to Allah Himself. By this then is admonished whosoever believes in God and the Last Day. And whosoever fears Allah, He will appoint for him a way out,

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  • This verse talks about "reaching their term" which is long time after saying divorce word. Divorce itself is applied at the time of saying the divorce word, even if there are no witnesses. – Yousf Jun 20 '12 at 9:11
  • 1
    @Yousf Divorce is a process that is completed after "reaching the term" and with two witness. As Allah allowed to cancel the divorce before reaching the term so if they didn't take two witnesses divorce is not committed. – Bhribayli Jun 20 '12 at 9:17

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