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Is it mandatory for a husband get the consent of his current wife(s) if he wishes to marry another woman? And why?

If so, should he get the consent of all his wives in case he has more than one?

And if it's mandatory and he doesn't get the consent, knowingly or unknowingly, or the wife/wives refuse to give the consent, but still marries another woman, would the marriage be valid?

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There is no need to take the wife's consent for new marriage As it is the right for a man to have 4 wives due to Qur'an.

This Fatwa has another aspect, which the second or several marriage is under the country laws. For example, In Iran if you marry another woman without your wife's consent, your first wife can go to the court and take her divorce from her husband (without his allowance and either his consent) and also takes the half of the wealth of her husband.

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    Relevant source? – motiur Jan 26 '14 at 17:00
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    "In Iran ...", really? Of course not! In Iran rules are those of Islam and no one can modify such rules unless in the form of a temporary rule for the sake of some requirements. What you are trying to say is that the couple can suggest and accept or refuse some RATIONAL conditions to each other during their marriage. What you said is never a rule, the man can refuse to accept them at the marriage and the woman should decide if she still want to marry with him. Please modify your answer, it is not a country law. – owari Feb 2 '14 at 21:52
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It is allowed to have more than 1 wife but your wife has to agreed, if she allowed it then you can. But if she doesn't you can't.

“Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah (may Allah have mercy on him) was asked about a man who married a woman, and she stipulated that he should not take another wife or make her move from her home, and that she could live with her mother, and he went ahead (with the marriage) on that basis. Is he obliged to adhere to that, and if he goes against these conditions, does the wife have the right to annul the marriage or not? "

          -source: Islamaqa.info
  • This answer needs some elaboration to be helpful. The quote is based on a condition made by the 1st wife. While in OP's question there's no quote about any condition, so the case is different. – Medi1Saif Jul 7 '16 at 9:24
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If a man wants a good marriage, then it is only logical to consult his wife/wives on such matters. If a man does not want a good marriage, then let the man drown in his own arrogance.

With the above being said, in Islam, a husband does not need permission of his wife/wives for marriage, this is a man's right as dictated in the Quran. This right comes with hefty responsibilities though, hence treat them all equally. That means if you buy one a car, then you buy all of them a car. This is not negotiable. This also includes love, there aren't many men out there who would be able to maintain that perfect balance.

Today I have seen many cases where a man has one wife in Europe, one in America, and one in Asia. The man stays with one in America, and completely neglects the rest. This is wrong as it breaks the condition which allows men to have more than one wife to begin with.

The source: Surah Nisa, chapter 4 verse 3

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    "If a man wants a good marriage, then it is only logical to consult his wife/wives on such matters. If a man does not want a good marriage, then let the man drown in his own arrogance" ... according to what?? – kmonsoor Dec 21 '16 at 22:43
  • @kmonsoor according to the fact that "consulting your wife" is not a sin, and not consulting your wife in such a huge decision is retarded in every aspect imaginable. You don't have to be Einstein to know how it could ruin a marriage. To top it all off, the prophet consulted his wives on matters, for example the case of umm salamah, and he accepted her consultation (which makes it a Sunnah). There are cases in the Quran also, cases depicting men accepting consultation from women of the household. These are sources of wisdom, and must be considered. Source: 28:9 - 28:26 – Allah knows best Dec 22 '16 at 3:34

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