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Post Closed as "Duplicate" by Ahmed, Medi1Saif
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I’ve read that a a women has to obey her husband no matter what. Like if the husband wants to have sex but the wife doesn’t she still have to have sex with him cause he’s her husband. But it doesn’t apply to the husband. If a wife wants to have sex but the husband doesn’t then they won’t have sex. Wives are supposed to fulfill husbands needs and sexual desires because husband provides foot and shelter to his wife. Why is that? ( I apologize for my english)

I’ve read that a a women has to obey her husband no matter what. Like if the husband wants to have sex but the wife doesn’t she still have to have sex with him cause he’s her husband. But it doesn’t apply to the husband. If a wife wants to have sex but the husband doesn’t then they won’t have sex. Why is that? ( I apologize for my english)

I’ve read that a a women has to obey her husband no matter what. Like if the husband wants to have sex but the wife doesn’t she still have to have sex with him cause he’s her husband. But it doesn’t apply to the husband. If a wife wants to have sex but the husband doesn’t then they won’t have sex. Wives are supposed to fulfill husbands needs and sexual desires because husband provides foot and shelter to his wife. Why is that? ( I apologize for my english)

Source Link
Abc
  • 37
  • 2
  • 4
  • 7

In islam why does men have upper hand in a marriage?

I’ve read that a a women has to obey her husband no matter what. Like if the husband wants to have sex but the wife doesn’t she still have to have sex with him cause he’s her husband. But it doesn’t apply to the husband. If a wife wants to have sex but the husband doesn’t then they won’t have sex. Why is that? ( I apologize for my english)