Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is mentioned in this [hadith][3];

Jabir reported that 'Abdullah b. Ubayy b. Salul used to say to his slavegirl: Go and fetch something for us by committing prostitution.

Then [the verse 24:33][4] was reveled:

... لَا تُكْرِهُوا فَتَيَاتِكُمْ عَلَى الْبِغَاءِ إِنْ أَرَدْنَ تَحَصُّنًا لِّتَبْتَغُوا عَرَضَ الْحَيَاةِ الدُّنْيَا ...
And do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life

So, according to this verse, it seems that it says you shouldn't force the slave women if they want to desire chastity. But that opens up the possibility: if they ain't desiring chastity, it is possible to tell your slave girls to do prostitution without force. Or am I misunderstanding it?

Baydawi says in his tafsir:

تعففاً شرط للإِكراه فإنه لا يوجد دونه، وإن جعل شرطاً للنهي لم يلزم من عدمه جواز الإِكراه لجواز أن يكون ارتفاع النهي بامتناع المنهي عنه، وإيثار إن على إذا لأن إرادة التحصن من الإِماء كالشاذ النادر

Was slave prostitution allowed?

P.S:
This question was a bit broad so I removed a lot and created another question with that which I removed. [3]: https://sunnah.com/muslim/56/30 [4]: https://quran.com/24/33 [5]: http://altafasir.com/al-quran/surat/24/an-nur/33/al-qurtubi

Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is mentioned in this hadith;

Jabir reported that 'Abdullah b. Ubayy b. Salul used to say to his slavegirl: Go and fetch something for us by committing prostitution.

Then the verse 24:33 was reveled:

... لَا تُكْرِهُوا فَتَيَاتِكُمْ عَلَى الْبِغَاءِ إِنْ أَرَدْنَ تَحَصُّنًا لِّتَبْتَغُوا عَرَضَ الْحَيَاةِ الدُّنْيَا ...
And do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life

So, according to this verse, it seems that it says you shouldn't force the slave women if they want to desire chastity. But that opens up the possibility: if they ain't desiring chastity, it is possible to tell your slave girls to do prostitution without force. Or am I misunderstanding it?

Baydawi says in his tafsir:

تعففاً شرط للإِكراه فإنه لا يوجد دونه، وإن جعل شرطاً للنهي لم يلزم من عدمه جواز الإِكراه لجواز أن يكون ارتفاع النهي بامتناع المنهي عنه، وإيثار إن على إذا لأن إرادة التحصن من الإِماء كالشاذ النادر

Was slave prostitution allowed?

P.S:
This question was a bit broad so I removed a lot and created another question with that which I removed.

Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is mentioned in this hadith;

Jabir reported that 'Abdullah b. Ubayy b. Salul used to say to his slavegirl: Go and fetch something for us by committing prostitution.

Then the verse 24:33 was reveled:

... لَا تُكْرِهُوا فَتَيَاتِكُمْ عَلَى الْبِغَاءِ إِنْ أَرَدْنَ تَحَصُّنًا لِّتَبْتَغُوا عَرَضَ الْحَيَاةِ الدُّنْيَا ...
And do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life

So, according to this verse, it seems that it says you shouldn't force the slave women if they want to desire chastity. But that opens up the possibility: if they ain't desiring chastity, it is possible to tell your slave girls to do prostitution without force. Or am I misunderstanding it?

Baydawi says in his tafsir:

تعففاً شرط للإِكراه فإنه لا يوجد دونه، وإن جعل شرطاً للنهي لم يلزم من عدمه جواز الإِكراه لجواز أن يكون ارتفاع النهي بامتناع المنهي عنه، وإيثار إن على إذا لأن إرادة التحصن من الإِماء كالشاذ النادر

To my question

I have given you context which i base my questions on:

1. Was slave prostitution allowed?
2. If it was allowed, who was the "customers"?

Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is mentioned in this [hadith][3];

Jabir reported that 'Abdullah b. Ubayy b. Salul used to say to his slavegirl: Go and fetch something for us by committing prostitution.

Then [the verse 24:33][4] was reveled:

... لَا تُكْرِهُوا فَتَيَاتِكُمْ عَلَى الْبِغَاءِ إِنْ أَرَدْنَ تَحَصُّنًا لِّتَبْتَغُوا عَرَضَ الْحَيَاةِ الدُّنْيَا ...
And do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life

So, according to this verse, it seems that it says you shouldn't force the slave women if they want to desire chastity. But that opens up the possibility: if they ain't desiring chastity, it is possible to tell your slave girls to do prostitution without force. Or am I misunderstanding it?

Baydawi says in his tafsir:

تعففاً شرط للإِكراه فإنه لا يوجد دونه، وإن جعل شرطاً للنهي لم يلزم من عدمه جواز الإِكراه لجواز أن يكون ارتفاع النهي بامتناع المنهي عنه، وإيثار إن على إذا لأن إرادة التحصن من الإِماء كالشاذ النادر

Was slave prostitution allowed?

P.S:
This question was a bit broad so I removed a lot and created another question with that which I removed. [3]: https://sunnah.com/muslim/56/30 [4]: https://quran.com/24/33 [5]: http://altafasir.com/al-quran/surat/24/an-nur/33/al-qurtubi

The reason I ask this question is because of the context given below:

1. Being recognized as free woman in order to not get molested

يَا أَيُّهَا النَّبِيُّ قُل لِّأَزْوَاجِكَ وَبَنَاتِكَ وَنِسَاءِ الْمُؤْمِنِينَ يُدْنِينَ عَلَيْهِنَّ مِن جَلَابِيبِهِنَّ ۚ ذَٰلِكَ أَدْنَىٰ أَن يُعْرَفْنَ فَلَا يُؤْذَيْنَ ۗ وَكَانَ اللَّهُ غَفُورًا رَّحِيمًا

O Prophet! Tell thy wives and daughters, and the believing women, that they should cast their outer garments over their persons (when abroad): that is most convenient, that they should be known (as such) and not molested. And Allah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful

-- Surat Ahzab, verse 59

In the tafsirs, its mentioned that the words an yo'rafna means: That they would be known to be free women, and not slave women.

So the conclusion of the following verse would be; if its known that they are free woman, they should not get abused.

This is from the tafsir Ibn Al Kathir:

كان ناس من فساق أهل المدينة يخرجون بالليل حين يختلظ الظلام إلى طرق المدينة يتعرضون للنساء، وكانت مساكن أهل المدينة ضيقة، فإذا كان الليل، خرج النساء إلى الطرق يقضين حاجتهن، فكان أولئك الفساق يبتغون ذلك منهن، فإذا رأوا المرأة عليها جلباب، قالوا: هذه حرة، فكفوا عنها، وإذا رأوا المرأة ليس عليها جلباب، قالوا: هذه أمة، فوثبوا عليها، وقال مجاهد: يتجلببن فيعلم أنهن حرائر، فلا يتعرض لهن فاسق بأذى ولا ريبة.

When they saw a woman which wasn't wearing jilbab (hijab/niqab), they said; "this is a slave", then they jumped on her.
(only translated the bold sentence)

And from Tafsir Tabarsi:

{ ذلك أدنى أن يعرفن فلا يؤذين }
أي ذلك أقرب إلى أن يعرفن بزيّهن أنهنَّ حرائر ولسن بإماء فلا يؤذيهن أهل الريبة فإنهم كانوا يمازحون الإِماء وربما كان يتجاوز المنافقون إلى ممازحة الحرائر فإذا قيل لهم في ذلك قالوا حسبناهنَّ إماء

And the hypocrites maybe used to go beyond teasing the free women, and when they were criticized about their behavior towards the women, they would say: "we thought they were slaves".

2. Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is also mentioned in this hadith;

To my questions

1. Was slave prostitution allowed?
2. If it was allowed, who was the "customers"?
3. Was it okay to abuse slave women (in the streets or such)? Would you get away with abusing slave women? _{(see above in section 1, Being recognized as free woman in order to not get molested)}

Please answer the questions one by one and try to explain as good as possible.

If the answer to the question 3 is "no", then please explain why it would be of any importance to dress up (with hijab/niqab) in order to get recognized as a free woman and not a slave and by so not getting abused/molested. I.e if it wasn't okay to abuse a slave woman and if you wouldn't get away with it, why is it so important to distinguish between the two?

Forcing slaves to prostitution

It is mentioned in this hadith;

To my question

1. Was slave prostitution allowed?
2. If it was allowed, who was the "customers"?