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Mar 28, 2017 at 12:41 history edited Kilise CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 28, 2017 at 11:34 comment added G. Bach If the Muslims can dictate what criteria the Jews and Christians should adopt to consider someone to be of their religion, why can't the Jews and Christians say the same with regard to Muslims? That's what OP is pointing out, the argument is symmetrical.
Mar 28, 2017 at 9:14 comment added Kilise I disagree. I feel this issue is somehow explained in the tafsir of Razi which i posted (here: altafasir.com/al-quran/surat/3/al-imran/67/razi ) I am sorry but it's pretty long and I don't feel qualified to translate it.
Mar 27, 2017 at 22:06 comment added G. Bach A tafsir of the Quran can't really resolve the issue because it's a matter of what Christians and Jews consider to be necessary for Abraham to be called "one of them", and they can set the criterion in the same sense of "following the correct monotheism" in which the Quran uses "Muslim" in a wider sense.
Mar 27, 2017 at 21:59 comment added Kilise @G.Bach As I wrote my intention was to post this as a comment but it was too big. Also the word muslim here doesnt mean muslim as you describe it. Anyway as I also said more could be read in the tafsir of razi of the following verses which is in Arabic. I am not good enough to translate it.
Mar 27, 2017 at 21:21 comment added G. Bach I don't see how this resolves the issue - the Jews and Christians could rationalize calling Ibrahim a Jew or a Christian in exactly the same way that Muslims, who follow the monotheism of Muhammad, call Abraham a Muslim; all three groups will claim he followed the correct monotheism and is thereby one of them.
Mar 27, 2017 at 20:57 comment added Kilise If someone wishes to translate the tafsir of tabari from Arabic to English in my answer, then feel free to do that.
Mar 27, 2017 at 20:57 history answered Kilise CC BY-SA 3.0