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I feel that my question has been answered lighly herehere. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

The hadiths and verses in the Quran doesn't clearly state thus anywhere. Indeed the Hadith and verses clearly says that Satan only whispers onto human.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

The hadiths and verses in the Quran doesn't clearly state thus anywhere. Indeed the Hadith and verses clearly says that Satan only whispers onto human.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

The hadiths and verses in the Quran doesn't clearly state thus anywhere. Indeed the Hadith and verses clearly says that Satan only whispers onto human.

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I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

The hadiths and verses in the Quran doesn't clearly state thus anywhere. Indeed the Hadith and verses clearly says that Satan only whispers onto human.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

The hadiths and verses in the Quran doesn't clearly state thus anywhere. Indeed the Hadith and verses clearly says that Satan only whispers onto human.

2 added comment to sub question, added a tag
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I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

I feel that my question has been answered lighly here. The answer to this question would lead to sub questions that changes due to the answer of this question.

First, can Jinns/Shayatin/Iblees read our thoughts?

If that is true, wouldn't this be a contradiction? Because the quran clearly states:

27:65: Say: None in the heavens or on earth, except Allah, knows what is hidden: nor can they perceive when they shall be raised up (for Judgment).

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he waswas (whisper negatively) to us when we think about a certain subject? You could say, he is the one, that in the first place whispered to you to think about that subject. But that wouldn't be logically valid in all scenarios. There are scenarios where the jinn couldn't be the one that started the subject (which then lead to negatively thoughts), that some might call waswas from the shaytan. In that case how could the shaytan waswas to you about that subject without knowing what you think? Maybe our definition of waswas and of shaytan in the context of waswas is wrong?

Sub question: If Jinns cannot read our thoughts, how can he know that we are jelaous on someone? Scholars had said that jinns fuel are jealousy, which lead the jinns to do something evil on the person you are casting the evil eye on. Sources (Youtube 3:45)

If they cannot read our thoughts and knowing that we are getting jelaous at someone, they wouldn't be able to feed on that jelaousy and by that doing something evil on the person. The evil eye, just by thought would in that way not be able to be caused by a jinn. Who is it caused by then?

My questions are marked bold, everything else are comments around them.

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