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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:49 history edited CommunityBot
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Aug 17, 2016 at 11:04 comment added Medi1Saif I miss to some extent an answer for the 2nd Q how to consolidate between those Verses. I personally suppose either the definition of language is very strict, this may mean that any further derivative wouldn't count! Or we lost some kind of scripture or just don't know about a couple of Prophets, as a possibility is that they spread the message orally.
Aug 17, 2016 at 8:52 comment added Kilise @Medi1Saif I added a conclusion, if you still think your question hasn't been answered add me a comment on what you think you miss
Aug 17, 2016 at 8:50 history edited Kilise CC BY-SA 3.0
added conclusion
Mar 31, 2016 at 13:09 comment added Kilise About that verse, you might like this interpretation: islamicity.com/quransearch/shownote.asp?chap=7&note=32
Mar 31, 2016 at 12:02 comment added Medi1Saif I thought the Chinese scripture has never changed. I heard a lesson of a Coptic scholar who knew the Aramaic scripture and concluded or pretended that الجمل in legacy.quran.com/7/40 is a wrong interpretation of the scripture as it should be الحمل which is a synonym of load and cargo there's a apparently a similar Verse in the Bible!
Mar 31, 2016 at 11:15 comment added Kilise Thanks! My intention with these points are that they valid before and after the development of the Arabic Language (or beliefs) that is spoken to in the Quran. I haven't done a big research in the Chinese language, but I do think it also has developed in the 2000 years that has gone. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_Chinese_language
Mar 31, 2016 at 10:39 comment added Medi1Saif Your answer includes a lot of good ideas and aspects. But i'm not speaking of languages or beliefs that developed later then Quran! Just for example the -still actual- Chinese language and scripture are at least 2200 years old!
Feb 4, 2016 at 15:47 history answered Kilise CC BY-SA 3.0