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This question comes to my mind as why this special treatment to Jesus and why not for Mohammed also.

Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith, Hadith 4.506, narrated by Abu Huraira:

عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ ـ رضى الله عنه ـ قَالَ قَالَ النَّبِيُّ صلى الله عليه وسلم ‏"‏ كُلُّ بَنِي آدَمَ يَطْعُنُ الشَّيْطَانُ فِي جَنْبَيْهِ بِإِصْبَعِهِ حِينَ يُولَدُ، غَيْرَ عِيسَى بْنِ مَرْيَمَ، ذَهَبَ يَطْعُنُ فَطَعَنَ فِي الْحِجَابِ ‏"‏‏.‏

The Prophet said, "When any human being is born, Satan touches him at both sides of the body with his two fingers, except Jesus, the son of Mary, whom Satan tried to touch but failed, for he touched the placenta-cover instead."

Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith, Hadith 4.641 Narrated by Said bin Al Musaiyab:

قَالَ أَبُو هُرَيْرَةَ ـ رضى الله عنه ـ سَمِعْتُ رَسُولَ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم يَقُولُ ‏"‏ مَا مِنْ بَنِي آدَمَ مَوْلُودٌ إِلاَّ يَمَسُّهُ الشَّيْطَانُ حِينَ يُولَدُ، فَيَسْتَهِلُّ صَارِخًا مِنْ مَسِّ الشَّيْطَانِ، غَيْرَ مَرْيَمَ وَابْنِهَا ‏"‏‏

Abu Huraira said, "I heard Allah's Apostle saying, 'There is none born among the off-spring of Adam, but Satan touches it. A child therefore, cries loudly at the time of birth because of the touch of Satan, except Mary and her child."

So what so special about Jesus and not with Mohammed? Why was Jesus Christ faultless and without sin, whereas Mohammad was touched by Satan and sinned like all of us? Many times in the Quran, Mohammad is reminded of repenting his sins.

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Shia Muslims do not believe this to be true. –  owari Oct 1 '12 at 13:10
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So, I read your question, as well as the Hadith. Where did you get the idea that Muhammad sinned because he was touched by the Satan? Where does it mention, or even indicate that? Other than that, both Muhammad and Jesus were born differently. –  user659 Oct 1 '12 at 16:18
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This discussion is deviated from the question. Basically I was interested to know why Jesus got special status at the time of his birth and why this status was not given for Mohammed. Now since it has come to this, there are many places I have come across in Quran which imply that Mohammed did sinned: 48:1 Verily We have granted thee a manifest Victory. 48.2 That Allah may forgive thee thy faults of the past and those to follow; fulfill His favour to thee; and guide thee on the Straight Way; –  user426 Oct 2 '12 at 3:56
    
Pickthal's translation of Sura 48:1, 2 states: "Lo! We have given thee, (O Muhammad), signal victory, that Allah may forgive thee of past and that which is to come, and may perfect His favor unto thee, and guide thee on a right path" Sura 47.19:So know, [O Muhammad], that there is no deity except Allah and ask forgiveness for your sin and for the believing men and believing women. And Allah knows of your movement and your resting place. Also see Sura 40:55. –  user426 Oct 2 '12 at 3:57
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1 Answer

The hadith above does not indicate Jesus(pbuh) is a "faultless son" rather just that he was not touched by the Satan when he was born which resulted in him not crying.

According to the Quran he was not over bearing to his mother.

[Jesus says:] And [Allah made me] dutiful to my mother, and He has not made me a wretched tyrant. (Quran 19:32)

Just imagine an alone woman in a conservative society where having a child out of wed lock could result in death. To add to those troubles, she delivered the child all by herself in the desert.

So it Allah's mercy to Virgin Mary(pbuh) that her son didnt cry. BUT ALLAH KNOWS BEST, why Jesus(pbuh) didn't cry on being born. This in no way means he is MORE faultless than Muhammad(pbuh).

Every prophet has miracles...

Every prophet has his own set of miracles. That does not in anyway imply one is greater than the other. Rather this implies that all miracles come from the same Allah. ESPECIALLY we as muslims ARE NOT allowed to distinguish between prophets.

The Messenger has believed in what was revealed to him from his Lord, and [so have] the believers. All of them have believed in Allah and His angels and His books and His messengers, [saying], "We make no distinction between any of His messengers." And they say, "We hear and we obey. [We seek] Your forgiveness, our Lord, and to You is the [final] destination." ( Quran 2:285 )

Comparing miracles trivia

Jesus(pbuh) didnt have a father which was a miracle BUT Adam(pbuh) didnt have a mother and a father. This is double the miracle of Jesus(pbuh)!

This does not in anyway mean Adam(pbuh) is "greater faultless son" than Jesus(pbuh).

Different prophets, different miracles....same Allah.

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Note that we do not distinguish between different prophets only in their Prophecy, they all accomplished their missions with not even a single fault, but not all of them are ranked equally in the view of Allah. –  owari Oct 2 '12 at 11:57
    
@owari that is for Allah, not for us –  islam101 Oct 2 '12 at 13:05
    
Sura 19.19, apart from other places, mentions about Jesus being without sin. Also see the debate on this site: answering-islam.org/Responses/Osama/sinless_jesus.htm. I was also surprised to come across Sura 19.33 where it talks about death and resurrection of Jesus. –  user426 Oct 3 '12 at 14:41
    
19:19 talks about PURE son which can also mean sinless BUT that still does not assert the contrast you wish to draw in your question between muhammad(pbuh) and jesus( pbuh). open a new question for 19:33 –  islam101 Oct 3 '12 at 19:14
    
But your assumption in answer “So it could be more of a miracle associated with Virgin Mary(pbuh) rather than Jesus(pbuh).” is not correct in view of Sahih Al-Bukhari Hadith, Hadith 4.641 Narrated by Said bin Al Musaiyab. –  user426 Oct 4 '12 at 5:54
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